36538

#43956
Onuvanja
Participant

Interesting. What you say makes sense. Still, Bible version published on the anbioblanaofa.org web site also has “go naofar d’ainm”. Why should this verb have an irregular subjunctive (impersonal) form? Are there historical reasons for the sound change from “t” to “th” (naomhtar -> naomhthar), as you suggest? Just being curious.

Daltaí na Gaeilge