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There’s a copy for sale at https://www.abebooks.com. Just enter “Réchúrsa Gramadaí” into the Title field.
Sorry for lapsing into English, and I know this isn’t the question, but people might be interested to know the origin of this difference. Originally, lenition after a preposition + an indicated the dative case, while eclipsis after a preposition + an indicated the accusative case, and there was a difference in meaning. The dative indicated a stationary location, while the accusative indicated motion toward a destination. (This difference is also found in German, and in Latin except with the ablative in place of the dative.) Thus in Early Modern Irish you could find “ins an chathraigh” for “in the city (in der Stadt, in urbe)” vs. “ins an gcathraigh” for “into the city (in die Stadt, in urbem)”. But even as early as Keating the distinction is beginning to fall apart, and today it’s purely dialectal and has no semantic difference at all.
Does anyone spell it “marbh ea” (the modern version of mar bh’eadh), or is it always “mar ea”?
No, this wouldn’t be the modern version.
There are no combined forms of mar. It is unlike ar, marar, or so.Usual pron. /mar ya/
Good point, I forgot about that. But it wouldn’t be “mar bh’ea” either, would it?
