Labhrás

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  • in reply to: McDonald’s as Gaeilge #46559
    Labhrás
    Participant

    Why wouldn’t it? Why would you use the dative here?

    I had actually thought you were using the nominative in your first post since ‘tigh’ is used as the nominative and dative in Munster, and so for a moment I assumed that it must be so in Connacht too – though I had always thought ‘teach’ was the nominative there. I got a bit confused. However, I don’t see why you would use the dative and not the nominative when simply stating the name of the pub or shop – e.g. on a pub or shop sign.

    Because tigh + name is a petrified phrase.
    “tigh” is rather a preposition here, not a noun, used like the French preposition “chez”,
    chez Jean = tigh Sheáin.

    in reply to: Insíonn in Munster #46556
    Labhrás
    Participant

    Dia dhaoibh! Tá an cheist agam oraibh. I see in dictionaries for “inis” forms “insím, insíonn”, but in the dictionary corkirish’s there’s “insim” [‘i:nshim]. May You tell me pls, forms for tú, sé/sí? Is it “inseann” ?

    In Dingle, it is nisim, niseann tú, niseann sé/sí (without initial i- and without syncope of the second i)

    in reply to: McDonald’s as Gaeilge #46555
    Labhrás
    Participant

    While Munster and Connacht use the dative form “tigh” in this context, in Ulster “teach” is used. Rosie, I mention this only because I seem to remember a previous post of yours in which you indicated a preference for ‘Gaeilge Uladh’.

    Toigh (or dtoigh) is the Ulster form in this usage, e.g. toigh Sheáin,
    (féach: An Teanga Bheo Gaeilge Uladh, 7.1. “toigh gan réamhfhocal”)

    But ‘toigh/dtoigh’ is the dative following a preposition, which, though not present, is understood: ‘Seisiún ceoil tradisiúnta Toigh Hiúdaí anocht’.
    Nominative: ‘Tá Teach Mhicí ceart go leor ach is fearr liom Teach Thomais’.

    Yes, dative is meant in case of a “translation” of the company name McDonald’s.
    Nominative would not work.

    in reply to: McDonald’s as Gaeilge #46551
    Labhrás
    Participant

    While Munster and Connacht use the dative form “tigh” in this context, in Ulster “teach” is used. Rosie, I mention this only because I seem to remember a previous post of yours in which you indicated a preference for ‘Gaeilge Uladh’.

    Toigh (or dtoigh) is the Ulster form in this usage, e.g. toigh Sheáin,
    (féach: An Teanga Bheo Gaeilge Uladh, 7.1. “toigh gan réamhfhocal”)

    in reply to: To mislead #46548
    Labhrás
    Participant

    Dia dhaoibh! May You tell me please, how to say “to mislead me (“me” as object)? Is variant “Tánn tú do mo chur amú” correct? Sorry for my English and mo chuid Gaelainne. 🙏

    That means: “You are misleading me” (“tánn” is Munster dialect, Standard: Tá tú do mo chur amú)

    The phrase “to mislead me” = mé a chur amú

    in reply to: McDonald’s as Gaeilge #46547
    Labhrás
    Participant

    Dia daoibh, a Ghach Duine. 🙂!

    I am currently doing a project about “McDonald’s” words/popular menu options in Irish. For example “Mac Mór” (Big Mac)

    I finally figured out that a good Irish equivalent for “McDonald’s” would be “Mhic Dhomhnaill” (since it’s possessive), [color=purple]but why is the “D” lenited? I thought a genitive of a genitive is generally unchanged. 🤷🏻‍♀️
    [/color]

    No, lenition can almost always be traced back to the previous word which causes it

    Mac -> no lenition, Mac Domhnaill
    Mic -> lenition, Mhic Dhomhnaill

    I’d translate McDonald’s as Tigh Mhic Dhomhnaill

    And, I also saw once source that seemed to indicate (but not outright state) that “S”s are specifically not lenited as a genitive of a genitive…[color=blue]so, would “McChicken Sandwich” be “Ceapaire Mhic Sicín”?[/color]

    Thanks in advance!

    No, c and g aren’t lenited following Mhic at least in surnames: Mhic Carthaigh etc.
    But s is lenited.

    in reply to: Go mháithre Dia orainn #46539
    Labhrás
    Participant

    Bhí an dara glúin ag caint idir Béarla is Gaeilge ar WhatsApp.

    Scriobh duine amháin “Go máithre Dia orainn”, – chuala sí an phrása i dteach tábhairne, ach ní raibh fhios aici conas a litrítear é – nó an phrasa ceart é ar cor ar bith.

    Aon smaoineamh? ??Go bhfóire Dia orainn”??

    Go bhfóire Dia orainn.
    https://www.teanglann.ie/ga/fgb/fóir

    in reply to: “mo chuid” or “mo choda” after verbal noun #46537
    Labhrás
    Participant

    Hi. I’m wondering if anyone can help me the answer to this:

    “My shoes” = “mo chuid bróg”… but would “tying my shoes” = “ag ceangal mo [color=purple]choda[/color] bróg”? (since the object [“my share”] of a verbal noun phrase [“tying”] must be in genitive case? It seems like it, but I can’t seem to dig up any answers online. Thank you! 😊

    You don’t use genitive of cuid if followed by another noun.

    ag ceangal mo chuid bróg
    dáth mo chuid bróg
    ar feadh mo chuid bróg
    etc.

    in reply to: Ní fheadar #46532
    Labhrás
    Participant

    De reir https://www.teanglann.ie/en/eid/wonder, ‘I wonder. = Ní fheadar’.

    Tá an aimsir chaite de dhith orm. An mbeadh ‘I wondered.’ = ‘Níor fheadar’ le bhur dtoil?

    Cad iad na bealaí eile chun ‘I wondered’ nó ‘I was wondering’ a rá go bhfuil siad ceart ó thaobh gramadaí de?

    Ní fheadar isn’t present tense. It has no tense. It can be used as “I wonder” as well as “I wondered”.

    in reply to: Use of Genitive after Verbal Noun #46531
    Labhrás
    Participant

    I’ve been doing research on this subject and understand the following:

    •Always use genitive case w/definite article.
    (Tá mé ag déanamh an stobhaigh … I am making the stew)

    •Use genitive case w/o definite article, as long as there is no further description.
    (Tá mé ag déanamh stobhaigh … I am making stew.)
    But…
    (Tá mé ag déanamh stobhach blasta … I am making tasty stew.)

    My only question is how would a possessive pronoun affect the case? Would it be…
    “Tá mé ag déanamh mo stobhaigh blasta.”
    Or…
    “Tá mé ag déanamh mo stobhach blasta.”

    Thank you in advance!

    Genitive with definite nouns – no matter whether there’s the article or other reasons for definiteness.
    “Tá mé ag déanamh mo stobhaigh bhlasta.”

    in reply to: “that I like least” #46530
    Labhrás
    Participant

    Seo ceist a fuair mé ar suíomh eile . . cé acu is fearr?

    1. is é mairteoil an feoil is lú a thaitníonn liom
    2. is é mairteoil an feoil a thaitníonn is lú liom
    3. is é mairteoil an feoil a thaitníonn liom is lú
    4. is é an feoil is lú a thaitníonn liom ná mairteoil.

    None of them.
    1-3 are wrong. feoil an mairteoil are feminine, so í instead of é, and mairteoil should be definite here: an mhairteoil.
    Is í an mhairteoil an fheoil …
    2.-3. is even wronger because “is lú” can’t be used as an adverb at the end or in the middle of a sentence. It comes first.
    So: Is í an mhairteoil an fheoil is lú a thaitníonn liom.

    But I’d say:
    (Is í) an fheoil is lú a thaitníonn liom ná mairteoil.
    It is your 4.) but again í because feoil/mairteoil is feminine.

    in reply to: Thiar vs san Iarthar #46500
    Labhrás
    Participant

    I think THIAR is an adjective, used with a noun

    an tír thiar – the west country
    an taobh thiar – the west side

    Iarthar is a noun. – the West

    Thiar is an adverb.
    But it can be used like an adjective, just like “over there” in English: the house over there.

    Labhrás
    Participant

    One can say:

    Is í an bhean í.
    ’She is the woman.’

    Is é an múinteoir é.
    Eisean an múinteoir.
    ‘He is the teacher.’

    Now my question is, how would you build a copular sentence where subject and predicate are grammatically different referents? Which pronouns would you use and where? Let’s say the subject is feminine while the predicate is masculine, as in the following example below. Which of these two would be correct:

    [color=purple]She[/color] is the secretary.’

    Is é an runaí í.
    Is í an runaí í.

    Is í an rúnaí í.

    What if the subject is singular while the predicate is plural? For instance, how would you say:

    [color=blue]He[/color] is the voices.’ (Odd sentence, imagine a work of fiction where “He” is a being capable of many voices)
    Is iad na glórtha é.
    Is é na glórtha é.

    The reason I ask is that I’m trying to determine the function of each pronoun (subject or predicate). There seems to be a syntactical flip occuring in some copular constructions in Irish. Hopefully someone can help. References would be appreciated if you know of any.

    P.S.: I have training in linguistics so do not hesitate to indulge in linguistic explanations.

    Probably
    Is é na glórtha é.

    but

    Is iad na glórtha an fear.

    Though the first pronoun is called “subpredicate” and should agree in number and gender with the predicate, this is not the case when the subject is also a simple pronoun.

    It is always either
    é … é,
    í … í
    or
    iad … iad,
    never é … í or í … é or iad … é/í

    Another example with a plural noun which comes to mind is:

    Ba é na flaithis é. = It was heaven. (source: Idir Neamh is Talamh, Joe Steve Ó Neachtáin)
    (na flaithis = heaven, plural noun, lit. “the realms”, kind of a pluraletantum.
    It (something aforementioned) was (like) heaven.

    in reply to: “An T-Uisce Beatha” or “Uisce na Bheatha”? #46487
    Labhrás
    Participant

    I was wondering if anyone knew if “the whiskey” would be “an t-uisce beatha” or would it be “uisce na bheatha.” And would that apply to ALL words (with the article) that include a genitive? Like “mac tíre” and “planda ubhthiraidh”?🙃

    an t-uisce beatha = the water of life = the whiskey (as a heading: An tUisce Beatha, small letter t, no hyphen)
    uisce na beatha = the water of the life (whatever this is)*

    btw: … na b[color=red]h[/color]eatha cannot be correct (no lenition following na: an bheatha, na beatha)

    * Latin aqua viva is indifferent because there’s no article in Latin, so other languages as German translate it as “das Wasser des Lebens” – but Irish doesn’t. That is more correct because viva is an adjective, “living water”. The indefinite noun beatha replaces the Latin adjective.

    in reply to: “Guess How Much I love You” #46469
    Labhrás
    Participant

    Recently, my Daddy bought me “Tomhais Méid Mo Ghrá Duit.” The real Irish version. I am using it as a study tool and translating it word by word/line by line. One sentence is confusing me…”Nach air siúd atá na cluasa fada!”…Google Translate says it means “Not those who have the long ears,” but that’s practically the opposite of the English version meaning. I researched on Teanglann, and I thought maybe it means something like, “He who had big ears”??? I’m pretty much confused…What does this sentence literally mean, and what (in this context) does “nach” mean?…Can anyone help? THANKS! 🥰

    Nach air … = Isn’t it on him / Isn’t it he
    … atá na cluasa fada = … that the long ears are / who has the long ears?

    You’re problem is probably the negation of the question.
    It is a rhetorical question. (used as an exclamation).
    Nach …? = Isn’t …?
    The negation is just there for emphasis as it is for instance in
    Nach deas an lá é?/! (Ar ndóigh is deas!) = “Isn’t it a nice day?” (Of course it is!)

    So here:
    Doesn’t he have the long ears! (Of course he has! You can say that again!)
    The sentence means actually: He has long ears – He is (as stupid as) an ass (donkey).

    (for simplicity I left out siúd, é siúd = that person in distance, Siúd is probably meant derogatory here,

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